What kind of conclusions can you make about British literature since 1785? Do the three items fit with the prevailing notions of the time? If not, why might that be the case?

The Hypocrisy of The Catholic Church as Shown in British Literature

What kind of conclusions can you make about British literature since 1785? Do the three items fit with the prevailing notions of the time? If not, why might that be the case? You might even want to bring in current events to compare/contrast with the literary works in question. One caveat: Avoid writing a great deal about the authors’ lives.